GENERAL PATHOLOGY 2023

Question 1 of 579

What is the morphologic hallmark of hereditary spherocytosis?

Spheroid, rigid erythrocytes
Schistocytes
Increased central pallor
Macrocytosis
Heinz bodies

Question 2 of 579

Which of the following uses constitutive exocytosis?

Plasma cells
Pancreatic islet cells
Pancreatic exocrine cells
Neurons
Cytotoxic T cells

Question 3 of 579

Which of the following facilitates the attachment of basal cells to the underlying basement membrane?

Tight junctions
Adherens junctions
Desmosomes
Hemidesmosomes
Gap junctions

Question 4 of 579

The catabolism of which of the following is defective in Tay-Sachs disease?

Galactocerebroside
Ceramide trihexoside
Glucocerebroside
GM2 ganglioside
Sphingomyelin

Question 5 of 579

All of the following can cause cell injury except…?

infections
normoxia
trauma
chemical toxins.
high storage levels of vitamins.

Question 6 of 579

The changes made by a cell in response to injury or adverse changes in their environment are referred to as…?

apoptosis
adaptation
remodeling
homeostasis
necrosis

Question 7 of 579

Which of the following will result from the accumulation of free radicals in the cell?

Increased protein synthesis
Increased activity of the ribosomes
Swelling of the mitochondria
Release of calcium ions to the mitochondrial lumen
Increased ATP production

Question 8 of 579

Which of the following is a function of heat shock proteins?

Defense against oxygen free radicals
Release of calcium ions from the mitochondria
Initiation of the apoptosis cascade
Recycling damaged organelles
Refolding of denatured proteins.

Question 9 of 579

Which of the following is responsible for converting dry gangrene to wet gangrene?

Immune-complex deposition
Ischemia
Infection
Calcium deposition
Radiation

Question 10 of 579

What moves granules to the cell center?

P-selectin
ADP receptor
Microtubules
Collagen
Alpha granules

Question 11 of 579

What cleaves the fibrin clot?

Heparin
Plasmin
Tissue factor
Activated protein C
Antithrombin III

Question 12 of 579

Bacteria stimulate the release of what substance?

Thromboplastin
Fibrin
Tissue factor
Cytokines
Plasminogen

Question 13 of 579

What does an atherosclerotic plaque in a large blood vessel cause?

The collapse of the vessel
Thromboembolism
Loss of elasticity of the vessel wall
Accumulation of fibrin
Complete occlusion

Question 14 of 579

What is an example of the clinical application of the Glagov phenomenon?

Ultrasonography
CT scan
MRI scan
Angiography
PET scan

Question 15 of 579

Creatinine kinase is an enzyme that generates the production of…

cCMP
CMP
G6P
ATP.

Question 16 of 579

Which of the following cell types is involved in the early phase of inflammation?

Macrophages
Keratinocytes
Fibroblasts
Plasma cells
Neutrophils

Question 17 of 579

Which of the following changes takes place in the capillary bed during inflammation?

Venular constriction
Contraction of the capillary bed
Increased intravascular oncotic pressure
Arteriolar dilation
Decreased vascular permeability

Question 18 of 579

Which of the following is true about neutrophil extracellular traps?

They result in neutrophil death through apoptosis or necrosis.
They are primarily composed of collagen fibers.
They are caused by faulty over-activation of the lysosomal enzymes.
They have attached granules that release proteases.
Their nuclear membranes remain intact during the process.

Question 19 of 579

Which of the following steps of leukocyte extravasation is affected in sialyl-Lewis X deficiency?

Chemotaxis
Rolling
Migration
Tight adhesion
Diapedesis

Question 20 of 579

What is the fate of neutrophils after the resolution of acute inflammation?

They differentiate into scavenger cells.
They undergo apoptosis.
They return to circulation through blood vessels.
They become quiescent and stay in the interstitial space.
They return to circulation through lymphatics.

Question 21 of 579

The interaction between the focal adhesion complex and the extracellular matrix is mediated through…?

actin
integrin
laminin
collagen
Cadherin

Question 22 of 579

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for matrix remodelling?

Lipase
Amylase
Hydrogen peroxidase
Hyaluronidase
Matrix metalloproteinase (MMP)

Question 23 of 579

Which of the following represents the histologic features of malignant cells?

Hypochromasia, noninvasive growth pattern
Loss of polarity, noninvasive growth pattern
Few mitotic figures, hypochromasia, metastasis
Pleomorphism, hyperchromasia, loss of polarity, invasive growth
Loss of polarity, high differentiation, few mitotic figures

Question 24 of 579

What is in situ hybridization?

A laboratory method that is used to detect the presence of mucin inside the cell
A laboratory method that is used to locate specific organelles in the cytoplasm
A laboratory method that is used to detect the presence of adipose tissue inside the cell
A laboratory method that is used to reveal the presence and distribution of specific nucleic acid sequences in the cells of the target tissue
A laboratory method that is used to detect specific protein antigens inside or outside the cells

Question 25 of 579

What is the role of IgD?

It is the most important circulating antibody.
It is involved in the B lymphocyte maturation scheme.
It is involved in mucosal immunity.
It is involved in mast cell activation.
It is involved in complement activation.

Question 26 of 579

What causes the immediate effects of IgE-mediated hypersensitivity?

Allergens cross-linking IgE receptors on mast cells
PAF produced by membrane phospholipids
Phospholipase A2 breaking down histamine
Cytokines produced by mast cells
Mast cell degranulation releasing arachidonic acid

Question 27 of 579

Which of the following is not a typical anatomic site of involvement in systemic lupus erythematosus?

Ears
Skin
Brain
Lungs
Kidneys

Question 28 of 579

An example of an autoimmune condition is…

HIV/AIDS.
megaloblastic anemia.
Infectious mononucleosis.
multiple sclerosis.
Influenza

Question 29 of 579

After growth factor binding, what results from receptor autophosphorylation?

Mitosis
Nuclear factor inhibition
Gene transcription
Growth factor release
Conformational change of the receptor

Question 30 of 579

What is one way to repair DNA damage?

Integration
Reassortment
Nucleotide incision
Mismatch repair
Heterologous recombination

Question 31 of 579

Which of the following changes leads to the growth of cancer cells?

Inactivation of growth-promoting oncogenes
Activation of growth-promoting oncogenes
Activation of tumor suppressor genes
Upregulation of DNA repair genes
Increased apoptosis by apoptotic genes

Question 32 of 579

What causes prion disease?

A dysfunctional mucopolysaccharide
A deformed phospholipid
An abnormally folded membrane protein
A bacteria-like peptidoglycan
A glycolipid with a kink in its shape

Question 33 of 579

What is the host-mediated injury caused by streptococcal pharyngitis?

Granulomas and scarring
Innocent bystander injury
Cytokine-mediated injury
Antigen–antibody complex formation
Cross-reactive antibodies

Question 34 of 579

Which of the following can be a complication of pheochromocytoma?

Anemia
Hypotensive crisis
Osteoporosis
Hemorrhagic stroke
Tongue enlargement

Question 35 of 579

What is an example of parenchymal cells?

Hepatocytes
Osteoblasts
Fibroblasts
Myofibroblasts
Chondroblasts

Question 36 of 579

What is the first step in the multistep process of tumor metastasis?

Evasion of host defenses
Clonal expansion, growth, diversification, and angiogenesis
Invasion through the basement membrane
Invasion of the tumor cell through the endothelial cells
Dissemination of tumor cells through the circulatory and lymphatic systems

Question 37 of 579

Which of the following is a major function of the distinctive protein domains in the plasma membrane?

Synthesis of adenosine triphosphate occurs within them.
They permit sorting and modification of other proteins.
They protect against viral infections.
They allow easy communication between cells.
They protect against reactive oxygen species.

Question 38 of 579

Which statement best describes transcytosis?

The parathyroid gland uses this method to secrete its hormone into the circulation.
It involves breaking down and/or recycling the content of the endosome.
Its efficiency is increased by the fusion of the endosomes.
It plays a defensive role against the spread of cancer cells.
It transports specific molecules directly into the nucleus.

Question 39 of 579

Which of the following best describes tight junctions?

They prevent the passage of molecules and ions across the cell membrane.
They are primarily composed of cadherin proteins.
They are a part of the actin-linked cell-matrix junction.
They prevent the passage of molecules and ions through the intercellular space.
They allow the passage of molecules and ions between adjacent cells.

Question 40 of 579

Which of the following is associated with Tay-Sachs disease?

Cognitive deterioration
Progressive renal failure
Cataract
X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
Peripheral neuropathy

Question 41 of 579

Cancer represents a response to cell injury acting through which of the following mechanisms?

Loss of protein synthetic capacity
Aging
Loss of genetic integrity
Loss of membrane structure
Loss of ATP generation

Question 42 of 579

Which of the following microorganisms increases the risk for B-cell lymphoma?

Helicobacter pylori
Cytomegalovirus
Hepatitis B virus
Human papilloma virus
Epstein-Barr virus

Question 43 of 579

Which of the following is responsible for activating the apoptosis pathway in a mitochondrial injury?

Proton ions
Cytochrome P450
Pyruvate
Chloride ions
Cytochrome C

Question 44 of 579

Which of the following causes the upregulation of heat shock proteins?

Ultraviolet light
Adenosine triphosphate
Glucose
Potassium ions
Sodium ions

Question 45 of 579

Which of the following facilitates the recognition and removal of the apoptotic bodies by phagocytes?

Sphingomyelin
Phosphatidylinositol
Phosphatidylserine
Cholesterol
Phosphatidylcholine

Question 46 of 579

An example of a mediator released by the dense granules is…

platelet-derived growth factor.
platelet factor 4.
transforming growth factor beta.
Adenosine triphosphate.
von Willebrand factor.

Question 47 of 579

Thrombolysis results in the formation of…

plasminogen.
tissue plasminogen activator.
fibrin degradation products
a2-antiplasmin.
Plasmin

Question 48 of 579

Systemic activation of endothelial cells in DIC causes…

deactivation of the complement system.
the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines.
vasodilation and increased permeability.
prolonged PTT.
platelet aggregation.

Question 49 of 579

What organism may secondarily promote atherosclerosis?

Streptococcus mutans
Escherichia coli
Candida albicans
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Chlamydia pneumoniae

Question 50 of 579

What phase of atherosclerosis manifests in middle age?

Clinical
Vulnerable
Stable
Stenotic
Preclinical

Question 51 of 579

What is a reliable biomarker for acute myocardial infarction?

CK-MM
BNP
Myoglobin
CK-BB
CK-MB

Question 52 of 579

Which of the following is responsible for the swelling in inflammation?

Increased sensitivity of the peripheral nerve endings
Immobilization
Increased blood flow
Vasoconstriction
Increased vascular permeability

Question 53 of 579

Which of the following mediates the binding of leukocytes to P-selectin on endothelial cells?

Prostaglandin E2
Sialyl LewisX
Von Willebrand factor
Interleukin 8
Platelet-derived growth factor

Question 54 of 579

Which enzyme is responsible for releasing arachidonic acid from the nuclear membrane?

Endoperoxide synthase
Cyclooxygenase
Phospholipase C
Phospholipase A2
Lipoxygenase

Question 55 of 579

Which of the following results from the disseminated activation of inflammatory mediators?

Thrombosis
Increased intravascular volume
Abscess formation
Gangrene
Hypertension

Question 56 of 579

Which of the following is true about classically-activated macrophages?

They actively secrete polyaminases and nitric oxide.
They lack the enzymes needed to synthesize reactive oxygen species.
They are activated by interleukin 13 and interleukin 4.
They promote wound repair and fibrosis.
They have microbicidal effects.

Question 57 of 579

Which of the following leads to tissue repair by scarring?

Preservation of the ECM scaffolding
Extensive damage
Extensive exudates
Injury to stable cells
Injury to labile cells

Question 58 of 579

Which of the following proteins is responsible for fibrinous pericarditis?

Elastin
Fibrin
Actin
Albumin
Collagen

Question 59 of 579

What are the features of a lipoma compared to a liposarcoma?

A lipoma can infiltrate the surrounding normal tissue.
A lipoma can be invasive.
A lipoma tends to have non-adipose tissue within it.
A lipoma is a well-differentiated tumor.
A lipoma usually has high mitotic activity.

Question 60 of 579

Why is cytogenetic analysis performed?

To determine cell type
To determine whether a tumor is malignant
To help detect specific protein antigens
To help detect specific gene sequences
To help detect chromosomal changes

Question 61 of 579

Which type of immunoglobulin has different subtypes?

IgG
IgM
IgA
IgD
IgE

Question 62 of 579

What causes the intermediate effects of IgE-mediated hypersensitivity?

Cytokines
Leukotrienes and prostaglandins
Chemotactic factors
Proteases
Eosinophils

Question 63 of 579

Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA)-associated vasculitis is characterized by autoantibodies against which of the following?

Phospholipids
Ribosomes
RNA
Myeloperoxidase
DNA

Question 64 of 579

What is a major nonhepatic source of complement proteins in the tissues?

Macrophages
Mast cells
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Natural killer cells

Question 65 of 579

What type of cell is quiescent?

Epidermal cells
Hepatocytes
Cardiac myocytes
Epithelial cells of the GI tract
Neurons

Question 66 of 579

Which of the following proteins has an important role in sensing DNA damage?

BRCA2
RAS
BRCA1
ATM
MYC

Question 67 of 579

Which of the following is an example of a high-virulence pathogen?

Candida albicans
Escherichia coli
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus mutans
Coronavirus

Question 68 of 579

Helminths form a cyst to…

adhere to the host surface.
gain access to the host.
evade a host response.
suppress host immunity.
cause mutation.

Question 69 of 579

Which of the following organisms causes a granulomatous inflammation pattern of injury?

Plasmodium vivax
Candida albicans
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Herpes varicella
Ascaris lumbricoides

Question 70 of 579

Which of the following could be a postoperative complication of cancer therapy?

Dilated cardiomyopathy
Tumor lysis syndrome
Secondary malignancies
Neutropenia
Lymphedema

Question 71 of 579

What is the name of the supportive framework that surrounds parenchymal cells?

Stroma
Fascia
Epithelium
Dermis
Epidermis

Question 72 of 579

Which enzymes are used by tumor cells to cut through the extracellular matrix in order to achieve migration and metastatic growth?

Exonucleases
Proteases
Glycolipases
Matrix metalloproteinases
Extracellular lipases

Question 73 of 579

Which of the following is involved in potocytosis?

Phosphatidylcholine
Phosphatidylserine
Glycolipid
Phosphatidylinositol
Lipid microdomain

Question 74 of 579

Which protein is affected in Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

Actin
Laminin
Myosin
Type III collagen
Dystrophin

Question 75 of 579

What is the function of gap junctions?

They allow the movement of small molecules between the cell and the extracellular space.
They allow the movement of ions and small molecules between adjacent cells.
They prevent the movement of ions and small molecules through the intercellular space.
They anchor the cell to the extracellular matrix.
They maintain cell-cell adhesion and tissue integrity.

Question 76 of 579

Which of the following coordinates the movement of cilia and flagella?

Tubulin
Basal bodies
Dynein central couplet
Kinesin
Dynein peripheral couplets

Question 77 of 579

Which of the following represents one result of activation of the cellular hypoxia response?

Erythropoiesis is increased.
Apoptosis signals are activated.
Anaerobic metabolism is inhibited.
Angiogenesis is inhibited.
Hypoxia-inducible factor alpha protein (HIF-1α) is hydroxylated.

Question 78 of 579

Programmed cell death is called…?

mitosis
necrosis
apoptosis
cell adaptation.
Phagocytosis

Question 79 of 579

Which of the following is involved in the pathophysiology of septic shock?

Bacterial cell walls
Bacterial exotoxins
Bacterial cell membranes
Viral nucleic acids
Bacterial nuclei

Question 80 of 579

Which of the following is involved in the pathophysiology of the reperfusion injury?

Paradoxical reduction in oxygen concentration
Increased release of the anti-inflammatory cytokines
Activation of the complement cascade
Inactivation of the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase
Increased recruitment of fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells

Question 81 of 579

Which of the following is involved in the pathogenesis of vacuolar degeneration?

Movement of water molecules from the intracellular space to the extracellular space
Pumping of sodium ions into the intracellular space
Decreased activity of the proton pump
Increased activity of the sodium-calcium exchanger
Decreased activity of the sodium-potassium pump

Question 82 of 579

Cytotoxic T-cells activate the apoptotic pathway through…?

release of interleukin 1.
Granzyme B
activation of the p53 proteins.
activation of the BCL-2 protein family.
release of cytochrome C.

Question 83 of 579

Where are the factors of the coagulation cascade produced?

Pancreas
Spleen
Thyroid
Kidneys
Liver

Question 84 of 579

Fibrin degradation products are important prognostic indicators of what condition?

Tuberculosis
Pulmonary embolism
Emphysema
Asthma
Bronchitis

Question 85 of 579

What is the mortality rate in patients with DIC?

10%
75%
25%
50%
30%

Question 86 of 579

What percentage of cardiovascular events in healthy women occur with “normal” LDL?

35%
70%
50%
75%
20%

Question 87 of 579

What type of plaque is associated with aneurysm and rupture?

Vulnerable
Mature
Fatty streak
Fibrofatty
Stable

Question 88 of 579

Troponin levels increase with…

the size of the infarct.
the type of infarct.
the location of the infarct.
the age of the infarct.
the composition of the infarct.

Question 89 of 579

Which of the following is an important function of inflammation?

Degradation of senescent cells
Deactivation of reactive oxygen species
Defense against infections
Formation of immunological memory
Removal of apoptotic cell bodies

Question 90 of 579

How is E-selectin expression regulated?

Redistribution from intracellular stores
Release from the activated leukocytes
Low-level constitutive expression
De novo synthesis
Recycling from the damaged endothelial cells

Question 91 of 579

Which of the following occurs during the resolution of acute inflammation?

Increased lymphatic drainage
Decreased release of anti-inflammatory cytokines
Increased neutrophil recruitment
Vasodilation
Increased endothelial permeability

Question 92 of 579

Which of the following is secreted by alternatively-activated macrophages?

Arginase
Nitric oxide
Lysozymes
Reactive oxygen species.
Interferon-gamma

Question 93 of 579

Which of the following manifests 7-10 days after myocardial infarction?

Coagulation necrosis
Tissue edema
New capillaries
Contraction band necrosis
Neutrophilic infiltrate

Question 94 of 579

Which of the following processes is directly responsible for the formation of intra-abdominal adhesions?

Angiogenesis
Atherosclerosis
Exudate organization
Phlegmon formation
Lymphatic tissue hyperplasia

Question 95 of 579

What is dysplasia?

It consists of mostly normal-appearing cells.
It is usually the same as carcinoma in situ.
It is a benign condition.
It is an invasive tumor.
It represents a stage before a preinvasive tumor.

Question 96 of 579

Which type of chromosomal translocation has an adverse prognostic outcome in AML?

T(18;21)
Inv(16)
T(15;18)
Complex translocations
T(15;17)

Question 97 of 579

What are the main differences between the different IgG subtypes?

They have different binding capacities to macrophages and neutrophils.
Some subtypes come from B lymphocytes and others from T lymphocytes.
They have different abilities to activate mast cells.
They exhibit different degrees of mucosal immunity.
Some activate complement and others deactivate it.

Question 98 of 579

What is the most severe manifestation of IgE-mediated hypersensitivity?

Food allergies
Urticaria
Seasonal rhinitis
Anaphylaxis
Asthma

Question 99 of 579

ANCA-associated vasculitis typically involves autoantibodies against which of the following?

Phospholipase C
Vascular endothelium
Proteinase 3
Endorphins
Tissue necrosis factor

Question 100 of 579

Which two complement fragments have been labeled as anaphylatoxins?

C3a and C5a
C6b and C7a
C7b and C8b
C6a and C8a
C3b and C5b

Question 101 of 579

During which phase is DNA duplicated?

G0 phase
G2 phase
M phase
G1 phase
S phase

Question 102 of 579

What activates the apoptosome?

Caspase
BAK
BAX
Cytochrome c
Membrane pore complex

Question 103 of 579

Which of the following populations is most commonly affected by opportunistic pathogens?

Vaccinated population
Adults
Hospital workers
Young children
Immunocompromised people

Question 104 of 579

Toxins produced by microbes determine their…

host barriers.
communicability.
host susceptibility.
proliferation
virulence

Question 105 of 579

What is a characteristic feature of helminthic infections?

Platelet infiltration
Basophilic infiltration
Eosinophilic infiltration
Neutrophil infiltration
Macrophagic infiltration

Question 106 of 579

What is a common complication of chemotherapy?

Tumor lysis syndrome
Diabetes type 1
Autoimmune colitis
Hyperthyroidism
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Question 107 of 579

What is the stroma composed of?

Fibroblasts and epithelial cells
Hepatocytes and myofibroblasts
Epithelial cells and myofibroblasts
Epithelial cells and hepatocytes
Fibroblasts and myofibroblasts

Question 108 of 579

How are epithelial cells connected to each other?

By angiostatin
By cadherins
By cyclins
By interleukins
By integrins

Question 109 of 579

Which of the following membrane phospholipids is involved in intracellular signaling pathways?

Phosphatidylcholine
Phosphatidylserine
Glycolipids
Sphingomyelin
Phosphatidylinositol

Question 110 of 579

Which of the following is characteristic of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A muscle biopsy will demonstrate the replacement of muscle with adipose tissue.
It is usually caused by poor nutrition or low activity.
Weakness and hypotonia are typically noted in the first few days or weeks after birth.
Patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy have a near-normal life expectancy.
It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.

Question 111 of 579

What is the primary etiology of familial hypercholesterolemia?

Increased cholesterol synthesis
LDL receptor dysfunction
Increased LDL absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
Loss of feedback inhibition
Decreased production of lysosomal enzymes

Question 112 of 579

Which of the following conditions is associated with Kartagener’s syndrome?

Cellulitis
Female sterility
Bronchiectasis
Congenital absence of the vas deferens
Situs solitus

Question 113 of 579

Which of the following is part of the cellular response to hypoxia?

Conjugating the HIF 1-alpha to the von Hippel-Lindau protein
Activation of the hypoxia response element (HRE)
Targeting the HIF 1-alpha to the proteasome
Generally increased synthesis of free radical absorbing proteins
Ubiquitination of the HIF 1-alpha protein

Question 114 of 579

Which of the following is a model of adaptation to cell injury?

Reduction in cell size
Scarring
Inflammation
Malignancy
Necrosis

Question 115 of 579

Which of the following will result from reduced activity of Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase?

Movement of water to the extracellular compartment
Increased intracellular Na⁺ concentration
Increased extracellular Ca⁺⁺ concentration
Shrinkage of the intracellular organelles
Increased intracellular K⁺ concentration

Question 116 of 579

Which of the following contributes to the formation of reactive oxygen species in reperfusion injury?

Increased recruitment of inflammatory cells
Decreased activity of the cytochrome C oxidase enzyme
Increased extracellular calcium concentration
Increased intracellular proton concentration
Decreased activity of the Golgi apparatus

Question 117 of 579

How does alcohol cause steatosis in the liver?

Depletion of NAD+ coenzyme
Decreased NADPH/NAD+ ratio
Dysfunction of the LDL receptors
Inhibition of the pro-inflammatory cytokines
Increased fatty acid oxidation

Question 118 of 579

Which of the following inhibits the release of cytochrome C from the mitochondria?

TNF-alpha
BAX
BAK
BCL-2
BAD

Question 119 of 579

How many clotting factors are there?

6
13
8
10
16

Question 120 of 579

What is an important step during thrombus organization?

Angiogenesis
Plasminogen activation
Platelet aggregation
Platelet adhesion
Fibrinolysis

Question 121 of 579

How does hyperhomocysteinemia cause hypercoagulability?

It causes endothelial dysfunction.
It produces cell-free DNA (cfDNA).
It causes overproduction of factor II.
It inactivates factors V/VIII.
It leads to excessive II, IX, X, XI, and XII activity.

Question 122 of 579

What does the C-reactive protein (CRP) test indicate?

Hypersensitivity
Hypercoagulability state
Increased immunity
Immunodeficiency state
Systemic inflammation

Question 123 of 579

What is a feature of a vulnerable plaque?

Thick fibrous cap
Large lumen
Rigid fibrous cap
Large lipid core
Minimal inflammation

Question 124 of 579

Transmural infarcts are commonly seen in…

partial occlusion of large vessels.
proximal occlusion of large vessels.
partial occlusion of small vessels.
complete occlusion of small vessels.
distal occlusion of large vessels.

Question 125 of 579

Which of the following is true about neutrophils?

They play an important role in healing and fibrosis.
They are recruited to the site of injury quickly and are short-lived cells
They release potent proteases that have high specificity for damaged cells or pathogens.
They typically have rounded or kidney-shaped nuclei and little cytoplasm.
They stay alive for a long period of time after they leave the circulation.

Question 126 of 579

Which of the following best describes neutrophil rolling?

High-affinity interactions
Guided by the chemotactic agent C5a
Repetitive attachment and detachment
Low on-off rates
Integrin-mediated interactions

Question 127 of 579

Which of the lipoxygenase pathway products is involved in chemotaxis?

Leukotriene E4
Leukotriene C4
Leukotriene D4
Leukotriene B4
Leukotriene A4

Question 128 of 579

What is the usual outcome of an abscess after treatment?

Complete resolution
Replacement by a granuloma
Replacement by scar tissue
Replacement by gangrenous tissue
Metastasis to other sites

Question 129 of 579

What limits the role of neutrophils in chronic inflammation?

The inability to proliferate locally
The inability to interact with the endothelial cells
The inability to synthesize collagen
The inability to react to chemotactic mediators
The inability to evade apoptosis

Question 130 of 579

A well-demarcated area of the myocardium is white and microscopically consists of dense fibrous tissue. What is the most likely age of this myocardial infarct?

3 days
15 days
30 days
8 days
15 minutes

Question 131 of 579

Which of the following statements regarding wound healing is true?

Exudate formation is only associated with malignancy.
Intra-abdominal adhesions always resolve spontaneously with no complications.
Transudate is defined as a fibrin-rich fluid.
It is not a perfect process and long-term complications are possible.
Lung injuries always heal perfectly.

Question 132 of 579

Which of the following best describes carcinoma in situ?

A very early invasive carcinoma
Malignant cells that have not invaded across the basement membrane
A carcinoma that has a chance to metastasize
A well-differentiated cancer
A carcinoma that has the same metastatic potential as mild dysplasia

Question 133 of 579

Which type of breast cancer responds to antiestrogen therapy?

Cancer that expresses PD-1 receptors
Cancer that expresses estrogen receptors
Cancer that expresses progesterone receptors
Cancer that expresses HER2/neu receptors
Cancer that produces estrogen

Question 134 of 579

What is the function of cytotoxic T lymphocytes?

Recognizing infected cells by proteins presented via MHC II
Interacting with plasma cells to produce antibodies
Releasing histamine and serotonin to kill infected cells
Killing infected cells with intracellular pathogens
Nonspecific killing of pathogens

Question 135 of 579

What is involved in type III non-IgE-mediated reactions?

They involve cross-linking of antibodies on mast cells.
They involve stimulating receptor-ligand interactions.
They involve immune complex deposition and complement/phagocyte activation.
They involve cell-mediated hypersensitivity reactions.
They involve blocking receptor-ligand interactions.

Question 136 of 579

Activation of the body’s innate immunity in response to a foreign body is achieved by…

cytotoxic T cells.
helper T cells.
plasma cells.
fibrinogen and denatured extracellular matrix proteins.
Eosinophils

Question 137 of 579

What action do cyclin-CDK complexes take to promote cell cycle progression?

Phosphorylation of proteins
Decarboxylation reactions of proteins
Dephosphorylation of growth factors
Dephosphorylation of proteins
Phosphorylation of growth factors

Question 138 of 579

What mutation is associated with BCL?

t(11;18)
t(9;22)
t(11;14)
t(14;18)
t(9;12)

Question 139 of 579

What is the site of binding of the coronavirus?

G-protein-coupled receptor
Tyrosine kinase–coupled receptor
Androgen receptor
Melatonin receptor
ACE receptor

Question 140 of 579

Which of the following decreases the host’s susceptibility to infections?

Old age
Concurrent infection
Nutritious diet
Chemotherapy
Organ transplantation

Question 141 of 579

In cancer patients, which protein decreases iron absorption, increases iron sequestration, and restricts iron for erythropoiesis?

Insulin-like growth factor
Fibrinogen
CRP
Ceruloplasmin
Hepcidin

Question 142 of 579

What could be a complication of a tumor that compresses the ureter?

Polycystic kidney disease
Glomerulonephritis
Kidney stones
Interstitial nephritis
Hydronephrosis

Question 143 of 579

What is angiogenesis?

Production of bone
Formation of new blood vessels from existing blood vessels
Formation of a primitive vascular network during fetal development
Production of connective tissue
Development and production of the male and female germ cells

Question 144 of 579

What stimulates tumor cell locomotion toward blood vessels or lymphatics?

Eccrine factors
Endocrine factors
Exocrine factors
Autocrine factors
Apocrine factors

Question 145 of 579

Which of the following best describes the cell membrane?

The interior region of the membrane is hydrophilic.
It consists primarily of amphipathic molecules.
The inner layer of the cell membrane is positively charged.
The outer layer of the cell membrane is rich with phosphatidylserine molecules.
It is characterized by its symmetric and uniform structure.

Question 146 of 579

Which of the following statements is true regarding cell polarity?

The cilia are located at the basolateral surface of the epithelial cells.
Most cells have either a positive or negative charge.
The location of the cell nucleus is the main determinant of cell polarity.
Tight junctions separate the basal and lateral surfaces.
Most cells have apical and basolateral surfaces.

Question 147 of 579

Which of the following is taken in by the cells through receptor-mediated endocytosis?

Sodium ions
Low-density lipoprotein
Oxygen molecules
Folate
High-density lipoprotein

Question 148 of 579

Which of the following synthesizes the proteins that are released into the cytosol?

Membrane-bound ribosomes
Chaperones
Free ribosomes
Golgi apparatus
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Question 149 of 579

Which of the following mitochondrial changes activates apoptosis?

Loss of cristae in the inner membrane
Mitochondrial swelling
Release of cytochrome C into the cytosol
Inactivation of the electron transport chain
Loss of the mitochondrial membrane potential

Question 150 of 579

Too much sun exposure can cause cell/tissue injury because of the excessive exposure to…?

allergens
UV light
toxic gases.
microbial pathogens.
chemical toxins.

Question 151 of 579

Which of the following will result from the deactivation of oxidative phosphorylation?

Increased glycogen synthesis
Accumulation of lactic acid
Decreased inorganic phosphate concentration
Decreased intracellular H⁺ concentration
Increased protein synthesis

Question 152 of 579

A maladaptive response of the heart to high blood pressure will lead to…?

heart failure.
increased heart contractility.
decreased size of the myocytes.
increased blood supply to the myocytes.
preservation of peripheral perfusion.

Question 153 of 579

Which of the following best describes steatosis?

The accumulation of fatty acids within a cell which appear as intracellular clear vacuoles under the microscope
Cytomegalovirus virus-induced cell damage
Perinuclear pale zones within a condensed nucleus
A type of cell damage mediated through neutrophils and pro-inflammatory cytokines
Scarring and necrosis of the tissues

Question 154 of 579

Which of the following characterizes apoptosis?

Basophilic cytoplasm
Involvement of the neutrophils
Lack of inflammatory response
Prominent histological changes on light microscopy
Nuclear swelling

Question 155 of 579

What factor is involved in the common pathway?

Factor IV
Factor X
Factor XIII
Factor XII
Factor VII

Question 156 of 579

Coagulation factors assemble on the phospholipid surface of what substance?

Endothelial cells
Injured tissue
Fibrin
Prothrombin
Platelets

Question 157 of 579

What percentage of hypercoagulable states have unknown causes?

60%
10%
50%
75%
25%

Question 158 of 579

An increased high sensitivity CRP level is associated with an increased risk of…

Alzheimer's disease.
multiple sclerosis.
Parkinson's disease.
myocardial infarction.
Cancer

Question 159 of 579

What is the mechanism of TNF-alpha in causing plaque rupture?

Produces collagen
Causes matrix degradation
Promotes stable plaque
Produces elastin
Promotes matrix synthesis

Question 160 of 579

Permanent occlusion of the right coronary artery results in the infarction of …

the inferior region.
the medial wall.
the posterior septum
the anterior wall.
the lateral wall.

Question 161 of 579

What is the predominant cell type in chronic inflammation?

Basophils
Macrophages
Lymphocytes
Eosinophils
Neutrophils

Question 162 of 579

Which of the following is true about integrins?

They recognize the alanine-arginine-aspartic acid motif.
They interact with selectins on the endothelial cells.
They mediate low-affinity cell-cell interactions.
They have some degree of specificity.
They are formed of four subunits.

Question 163 of 579

Which of the following cardinal signs of inflammation is due to increased blood flow?

Loss of function
Dolor
Calor
Tumor
Cyanosis

Question 164 of 579

Which of the following is the first to occur in response to injury?

Recruitment of macrophages
Formation of granulation tissue
Recruitment of neutrophils
Formation of scar tissue
Increased vascular permeability

Question 165 of 579

Caseating granuloma formation is classically associated with which of the following?

Benign nevus
Pyogenic granuloma
Tuberculosis
Alzheimer's disease
Foreign bodies

Question 166 of 579

Which of the following mediators promotes the deposition of the extracellular matrix?

IFN-alpha
EGF
VEGF
bFGF
TGF-β

Question 167 of 579

Which of the following time frames has the most macrophages?

12-24 hours
1-3 days
7-10 days
14-21 days
3-5 days

Question 168 of 579

Which of the following best describes invasive carcinoma?

It typically has a low mitotic index.
It is well differentiated.
It can show benign behavior.
It has not crossed over the basement membrane.
It has the potential to metastasize.

Question 169 of 579

What happens when PD-L1 binds to PD-1 in a malignant tumor?

The tumor undergoes programmed death through apoptosis.
The T lymphocytes are able to recognize the tumor cells as non-foreign.
There is no interaction between PD-1/ PD-L1.
This interaction decreases the host immune response against the cancer.
The tumor differentiates into a less aggressive tumor.

Question 170 of 579

What is the function of helper T lymphocytes?

Orchestrating an immune response through cytokine production
Recognizing infected cells with intracellular pathogens
Releasing granzymes and perforin to kill infected cells
Specific killing of pathogens
Recognizing microbial proteins presented on APCs via MHC I

Question 171 of 579

In acute rheumatic fever, antibodies against group A streptococcus cross-react with antigens present on which of the following structures of the heart?

Endocardium and valves
Myocardium and endocardium
Epicardium and myocardium
Myocardium and valves
Endothelium and epithelium

Question 172 of 579

The body’s adaptive immune response to a foreign body is mediated by…

macrophages
endothelial cells.
eosinophils
goblet cells.
T cells and B cells.

Question 173 of 579

Which cyclin has its peak concentration during the G2 phase of the cell cycle?

Cyclin D
Cyclin E
Cyclin A
Cyclin B
Cyclin C

Question 174 of 579

In cells with short telomeres, what protein is activated and stops the cells from proliferating?

p21
MYC
p17
RAS
p53

Question 175 of 579

Which of the following host responses is associated with an intracellular pathogen?

Natural killer cells
Neutrophils
Antibodies
Autoantibodies
Complement system

Question 176 of 579

Which of the following characteristics of the skin can suppress the growth of microbes?

Ciliated cells
Macrophages
High fatty acid content
Mucin
Defensins

Question 177 of 579

Which interleukin increases hepcidin production from the liver and causes anemia during cancer?

TGF-β
IL-24
IL-6
IL-20
IL-10

Question 178 of 579

Which of the following is a common manifestation of a tumor invading a bone?

Cushing syndrome
Hypocalcemia
Pathological fracture
Weight gain
Polycythemia

Question 179 of 579

Which important environmental cue drives angiogenesis?

Radiation
Infection
Thrombosis
Apoptosis
Hypoxia

Question 180 of 579

Which is an example of a known oncogenic virus?

HIV-2 virus
Vesicular stomatitis virus
Hepatitis A virus
Epstein–Barr virus
Herpes zoster virus

Question 181 of 579

What is the primary role of phosphatidylserine in the cell membrane?

It influences the membrane fluidity.
It acts as a "don't eat me" signal.
It is involved in programmed cell death.
It increases gas permeability.
It is involved in cell-cell interactions.

Question 182 of 579

The membrane carriers transfer molecules across the cell membrane…?

according to their concentration gradient.
actively by consuming GTP.
against their concentration gradient.
actively by consuming ATP.
passively without consuming ATP.

Question 183 of 579

Which statement best describes receptor-mediated endocytosis?

It occurs at the lipid rafts.
It is a class of caveolin-dependent endocytosis.
It plays a defensive role against microbial pathogens.
It plays a primary role in removing cellular debris.
It is regulated through feedback inhibition.

Question 184 of 579

Which of the following is part of the endoplasmic reticulum response to misfolded proteins?

Induction of proliferation signal pathways
Increased ER chaperones
Inhibition of autophagosomes
Increased mRNA transcription
Activation of protein synthesis

Question 185 of 579

Which of the following is a common feature of both mitochondria and prokaryotes?

The presence of a cell wall
The double helical structure of nucleic acid
The presence of a membrane-enclosed nucleus
Generation of ATP through photosynthesis
Transcription initiation with N-formylmethionine

Question 186 of 579

Which of the following has a limited regenerative capacity?

Hematopoietic cells
Neurons
The epithelial cells of the skin
The epithelial cells of the intestines
Hepatocytes

Question 187 of 579

The extracellular concentration of calcium is approximately how many times higher than the intracellular concentration?

10
100
1,000
10,000
50,000

Question 188 of 579

Which of the following describes hypertrophy?

Transformation of one differentiated cell type to another differentiated cell type
Irreversible type of adaptation
Abnormal structure of cells or tissue
Increase in cell size
Increase in cell number

Question 189 of 579

Which of the following is characteristic of irreversible cell injury?

Fragmentation of the nuclear chromatin
Swelling of the endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
Blebbing of the cell membrane
Dispersion of the ribosomes
Clumping of the nuclear chromatin

Question 190 of 579

What is the role of executioner caspases in apoptosis?

Activation of the apoptosome protein
Release of perforin and granzyme B
Activation of endonucleases
Activation of cytoskeletal protein synthesis
Recruitment of immune cells

Question 191 of 579

What factor activates the extrinsic pathway?

Factor I
Factor II
Factor III
Factor IX
Factor IV

Question 192 of 579

What test helps to diagnose a disease that causes uncontrollable clotting?

Platelet function
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
D-dimer
Prothrombin time (PT)
CBC

Question 193 of 579

Nephrotic syndrome results in the loss of which factor in the urine?

Antithrombin III
Tissue factor
Factor V
Factor XII
Factor VII

Question 194 of 579

What pattern does the development of atherosclerotic plaques follow?

Systematic distribution
Nonrandom distribution
Cumulative distribution
Uniform distribution
Predetermined distribution

Question 195 of 579

What type of macrophage is responsible for acute plaque rupture?

Stable macrophage
Matrix-synthesizing macrophage
Alternatively activated macrophage
Classically activated macrophage
Anti-inflammatory macrophage

Question 196 of 579

The effects of myocardial cell injury can be reversed up to…

60 minutes.
12–24 hours.
1–4 hours.
3 days.
30 minutes.

Question 197 of 579

Which of the following is a hallmark of acute inflammation?

Infiltration of the lymphocytes and plasma cells into the tissue site
Vasoconstriction
The formation of scar tissue
Increased vascular permeability
The onset of days-weeks after the injury

Question 198 of 579

The chemokine-induced integrin activation leads to…?

shortening of the beta subunit.
elongation of the beta subunit.
increased avidity of the integrins.
increased specificity of the integrins.

Question 199 of 579

What is the mechanism of action of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?

Antagonism of the leukotriene type 1 receptors
Inhibition of the lipoxygenase enzyme
Inhibition of the phospholipase enzyme
Inhibition of the cyclooxygenase enzyme
Inhibition of mast cell degranulation

Question 200 of 579

All of the following influence the outcome of an injury except…?

the nature of the injury.
the regenerative capacity of the cells.
the integrity of the extracellular matrix.
the intensity of host responses.
the amount of exudate released.

Question 201 of 579

Which of the following histological findings is commonly associated with granuloma?

Multinucleated giant cells
Fibrin deposition
Coagulative necrosis
Thin-walled capillaries
Neutrophilic infiltrate

Question 202 of 579

Which of the following best characterizes vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)?

It enhances the proliferation of osteoblasts.
It is synthesized by the endothelial cells and the smooth muscle cells.
It increases vascular permeability.
It works mainly on the outermost layer of the skin.
It binds to heparin in the extracellular matrix.

Question 203 of 579

Which of the following proteins appears as a blue-stained structure using a trichrome stain?

Fibrillin
Elastin
Collagen
Fibrinogen
Dynein

Question 204 of 579

Which of the following statement best describes the APC gene relationship to colon cancer?

APC gene amplification results in colon cancer.
Loss of one APC gene is enough for colon cancer development.
Loss of one APC gene is not enough for colon cancer development
Gain mutation in the APC gene causes colon cancer.
APC is an oncogene.

Question 205 of 579

What is the nature of anti-PD-1 drugs?

They are progesterone receptor antagonists.
They interact with HER2/neu receptors.
They are estrogen receptor antagonists.
They are monoclonal antibodies.
They decrease the immune response against cancer.

Question 206 of 579

Which of the following are examples of APCs?

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Mast cells
Neutrophils
Helper T lymphocytes
Dendritic cells

Question 207 of 579

Pemphigus vulgaris is caused by autoantibodies directed against which of the following?

Cell membranes
Gap junction proteins
Actin filaments
Basement membranes
Desmosomes

Question 208 of 579

During polyclonal activation of T cells, MHC II molecules present…

antigens to antigen-presenting cells.
antibodies to antigen-presenting cells.
superantigens to T cells.
antibodies to T cells.

Question 209 of 579

Which protein inhibits the cyclin D/CDK4 complex?

p16INK4
Rb
p27
MYC
Cyclin E

Question 210 of 579

What is the approximate length of microRNAs?

200 nucleotides
100 nucleotides
22 genes
200 genes
22 nucleotides

Question 211 of 579

Which of the following causes an infectious disease in humans?

Prions
Phytoplasmas
Mollicutes
Viroids
Lactobacillus

Question 212 of 579

What is one of the effective barriers against infectious agents in the respiratory tract?

Peristalsis
Diverse commensal flora
Mucociliary clearance
Low pH
Opsonization of neutrophils

Question 213 of 579

Which inflammatory-mediated molecules cause hypercoagulability in patients with cancer?

Ceruloplasmin and hepcidin
Transferrin and haptoglobin
Hepcidin and fibrinogen
CRP and ferritin
Factor VIII and fibrinogen

Question 214 of 579

What is a common clinical manifestation of glioblastoma multiforme (GBM)?

Intracranial hypertension
Carcinoid syndrome
Hypercalcemia
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Leser–Trélat sign

Question 215 of 579

What can induce angiogenesis?

Inflammatory cytokines
Bradykinin
Immunoglobulins
Tissue necrosis factor
Histamine

Question 216 of 579

Which process impairs the immune system’s ability to mount responses against self-antigens?

Immunological tolerance
Superantigen recognition
Immune surveillance
Immunological silence
Type III hypersensitivity

Question 217 of 579

Which of the following are part of the basic cell-housekeeping functions?

Defense against microbial pathogens
Generation of action potentials
Generation of energy
Evasion of programmed cell death
Production of exotoxins

Question 218 of 579

Which of the following best describes membrane channels?

They require energy to transport molecules across the cell membrane.
They are selective and only allow certain molecules to pass through them.
They are responsible for transporting lipophilic molecules across the cell membrane.
They are responsible for maintaining the electrochemical gradient across the cell membrane.
They belong to the peripheral membrane proteins family.

Question 219 of 579

Which of the following is a clinical feature of homozygous familial hypercholesterolemia?

Accelerated myocardial infarction in patients > 30 years old
Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
Periorbital cellulitis
Cholesterol is elevated 2-3 fold
Xanthomas

Question 220 of 579

Which of the following is responsible for sensing misfolded proteins?

Ubiquitin
C/EBP homologous protein (CHOP)
X-box binding protein 1 (XBP1)
Adenomatous polyposis coli (APC) protein
PERK protein

Question 221 of 579

Which of the following is a good indicator of whether the cell is transcriptionally active or inactive?

Ribosomes
The nuclear lamina
Chromatin
Cajal bodies
The nuclear envelope

Question 222 of 579

The expression used to point out the fact that laboratory findings from testing an organism in vitro are not always reflected when applied to an organism in vivo is…?

In vivo milieu".
"In vivo veritas".
"In vitro milieu".
"In vivo artificia".
"In vitro artificia".

Question 223 of 579

Which of the following will result from the increased intracellular calcium concentration caused by an injury to the cell?

Activation of HIF 1-alpha signaling pathway
Release of calcium ions inside the smooth endoplasmic reticulum lumen
Induction of the proliferation signaling pathway
Activation of CALPAINS
Inhibition of phospholipases

Question 224 of 579

Hyperplasia is…?

an increase in cell size.
the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells.
an increase in cell number.
the abnormal development of cells within tissues or organs.
the transformation of one differentiated cell type to another differentiated cell type.

Question 225 of 579

Which of the following is responsible for activating the proteases in irreversible cell injury?

The influx of calcium ions
The formation of myelin figures
The influx of sodium ions
Cellular hypoxia
The inactivation of Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase

Question 226 of 579

Which of the following is characteristic of necrosis?

Intact plasma membrane
Absence of inflammatory response
Caspase-mediated cell death
Karyorrhexis
Cell shrinkage

Question 227 of 579

What is the end product of the coagulation cascade?

Phospholipid
Fibrinogen
Thrombin
Prothrombin
Fibrin

Question 228 of 579

Platelet dysfunction and decreased platelet aggregation may be caused by which of the following?

Malignancy
NSAIDs
Stress
Infection
Injury

Question 229 of 579

Prolonged sitting for several hours is a risk factor for what condition?

Deep vein thrombosis
Septic shock
DIC
Nephrotic syndrome
Hyperhomocysteinemia

Question 230 of 579

What influences the development of atherosclerotic plaques?

Diameter of the vessel lumen
Elasticity of the blood vessel
Blood viscosity
Blood flow turbulence
Collagen in the vessel wall

Question 231 of 579

Which of these may trigger acute plaque rupture?

Vasodilation
Stress
Laminar flow
Bradycardia
Hypotension

Question 232 of 579

What is a late outcome of myocardial infarction?

Reperfusion
Myocardial rupture
Hemorrhagic color to the tissue
Formation of granulation tissue
Compensatory hypertrophy

Question 233 of 579

Which of the cardinal signs of inflammation is caused by vascular changes?

Numbness
Pain
Swelling
Loss of function
Cyanosis

Question 234 of 579

Which of the chemokine families typically recruits neutrophils?

-CX2C- chemokine family
-C- chemokine family
*-CXC- chemokine family
-CC- chemokine family
-CX3C- chemokine family

Question 235 of 579

Individuals with chronic granulomatous disease are susceptible to infections due to…?

catalase-positive bacteria.
enteroviruses
gram-negative bacteria.
obligate intracellular bacteria.
encapsulated bacteria.

Question 236 of 579

Which of the following plays a key role in coordinating tissue repair and scarring?

Endothelial cells
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Mast cells
Lymphocytes

Question 237 of 579

The activated macrophages M1 play a role in…?

the removal of injured tissue.
the recruitment of smooth muscle cells.
angiogenesis
the proliferation of fibroblasts.
the deposition and remodeling of the extracellular matrix.

Question 238 of 579

Which of the following histological features is associated with granulation tissue?

Interstitial deposition of lipofuscin pigment granules
Formation of new thin-walled capillaries
Extensive interstitial collagen deposition
Accumulation of macrophages and necrotic debris
Inflammatory infiltrate with abundant neutrophils

Question 239 of 579

Which of the following statements is true regarding transforming growth factor-β (TGF-β)?

It does not affect the production of the extracellular matrix.
It is produced mainly by neutrophils.
It is responsible for fibroblast migration.
It inhibits B-cell lymphocytes.
It plays a major role during the first 12 hours after injury.

Question 240 of 579

What is a leiomyoma?

A tumor with an irregular infiltrating margin
A rapidly growing tumor
A tumor that tends to be large
A reactive process that may have a focal hemorrhage
A benign tumor

Question 241 of 579

What is the purpose of using molecular diagnostic techniques?

To classify cancer, detect minimal residual disease, and determine prognosis
Usually to detect minimal residual disease
To determine the stage of a tumor
To determine the prognosis
Mostly to classify a tumor

Question 242 of 579

What is the mechanism by which cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill infected cells?

Opsonization
Necrosis
Autolysis
Apoptosis
Atrophy

Question 243 of 579

Myasthenia gravis is caused by autoantibodies directed against which of the following?

Synaptic cleft
Acetylcholine receptor
Acetylcholine
Calcium ion channel
Synaptic vesicles

Question 244 of 579

Which protein forms an active complex with cyclin E?

RAS
CDK3
CDK2
CDK4
MYC

Question 245 of 579

Which of the following is the mechanism through which microRNA regulates gene expression?

Translational repression
Transcription promotion
Transcription repression
DNA repair
Translational promotion

Question 246 of 579

An example of a persistent type of viral infection is…

shingles
varicella
hepatitis B.
candidiasis
Tuberculosis

Question 247 of 579

Which of the following provides an effective host barrier against microbial invasion in the GI tract?

High fatty acid content
Expression of hemagglutinin
Secretory IgA and defensins
Presence of adhesion molecules
Constant sloughing of the keratin layer

Question 248 of 579

Which statement is correct relative to cancer and hypercoagulability?

Decreased platelet activation and accumulation
Extrinsic vascular compression by a tumor increases the risk of thrombosis.
Decreased expression of phosphatidylserine by tumor cells
Elevated levels of protein C and S in serum
Decreased tissue factor production by tumor and endothelial cells.

Question 249 of 579

Which of the following is a common complication of chemotherapy?

Thrombocytosis
Neutropenia
Leukocytosis
Lymphocytosis
Polycythemia

Question 250 of 579

What is vasculogenesis?

Production of connective tissue
Development and production of the male and female germ cells
Production of bone
Formation of a primitive vascular network during embryonic development
Formation of new blood vessels from existing blood vessels

Question 251 of 579

Melanoma may show overexpression of which molecules?

Mutated RAS
BCR-ABL fusion proteins
Mutated p53 protein
Tyrosinase
Fetal proteins

Question 252 of 579

The plasma membrane is responsible for…?

generating adenosine triphosphate.
regulating the intracellular movement of organelles.
degrading misfolded proteins.
regulating the process of cell division.
regulating the movement of molecules and ions into the cells.

Question 253 of 579

Which of the following maintains the unequal distribution of ions on either side of the cell membrane?

Aquaporins
K⁺ channels
Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pump
Na⁺/Ca⁺⁺-ATPase pump
Na⁺ channels

Question 254 of 579

Which of the following receptors is located in the cytosol?

Insulin-like growth factor receptor
Growth hormone receptor
Vitamin D receptor
Vitamin B12 receptor
Insulin receptor

Question 255 of 579

What is the function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in liver cells?

Solubilization of lipid-soluble molecules
Metabolism of vitamin B12
Synthesis of cholesterol-based hormones
Synthesis of proteins to be secreted outside the cells
Catabolism of amino acids

Question 256 of 579

What is the source of ribosomes?

Peroxisomes
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Nucleus
Golgi bodies
Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Question 257 of 579

Which of the following is a common feature of the physiologic process in the body?

The tendency to accept change
Redundancy
Lack of selectivity
Absolute efficiency
Lack of inhibition

Question 258 of 579

Which of the following best describes a free radical?

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 2023

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