JCAT Past Past Paper 8

Question 1 of 100

Haploid ovum requires which of the following to be produced?

Secondary meiosis
Secondary mitosis
Primary mitosis

Question 2 of 100

Patient presented to emergency with femur fracture. Suddenly deteriorated and became pulseless and died, what could be the cause?

Pulmonary embolism
Fat embolism
Hemorrhage
Neurogenic shock

Question 3 of 100

Pyloric stenosis present which of the following will be decreased?

pH
Sodium
Chloride ions
Magnesium

Question 4 of 100

Patient had RTA and has muffled heart sounds, decreased blood pressure and tachycardia, what is the likely diagnosis given on eFAST there is no fluid seen in the subxiphoid window?

Pericardial effusion
Myocardial contusion
Pneumothorax
Pleural effusion

Question 5 of 100

Persistent vomiting causes which derangement is present?

Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory acidosis
Mixed metabolic acidosis and alkalosis

Question 6 of 100

Female with placenta Previa presented with collapse. Her BP was 60/0. What is next best step?

Uterine artery ligation
Uterine massage
Hysterectomy
Uterotonic drugs

Question 7 of 100

Person doing exercise for more than 4 hours. Which glycolytic product will be increased?

Pyruvate
Lactate
Glucose
Glycogen

Question 8 of 100

Tall T wave with prolonged QRS complex and with absent p waves, what is cause?

Hypokalemia
Hyperkalemia
Hyponatremia
Hypocalcemia

Question 9 of 100

Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis caused by:

Amoxicillin
Vancomycin
Clindamycin
Metronidazole

Question 10 of 100

Pericardiocentesis. Puncture site:

left 4th intercostal space
right 4th intercostal space
right 5th intercostal space
left fifth intercostal space

Question 11 of 100

Vaginal epithelium consists of:

Stratified squamous epithelium
Simple squamous epithelium
Columnar epithelium
Transitional epithelial cells

Question 12 of 100

Cardiogenic shock is treated with which of the following to increase cardiac output?

Beta blockers
Furosemide
Calcium channel blockers
Digoxin

Question 13 of 100

Quaternary fever with a history of travel is associated with:

Kala Azhar
Malaria
Leishmaniasis
Tropical sprue

Question 14 of 100

Sperm abnormal lab values:

pH 6.5
50 million count
Ejaculate volume 2ml
22 million motile sperm

Question 15 of 100

Antrochoanal polyps arise from :

maxillary sinus
Ethmoid sinus
Mastoid air cells
Sphenoid sinus

Question 16 of 100

Tender swelling on upper eye lid which gland is involved:

Meibomian gland
Gland of Krause
Gland of Zeis
Lacrimal gland

Question 17 of 100

Hydration status can be assessed by which urinary parameter?

Specific gravity
Urinary ketones
Urinary albumin
Urinary pH

Question 18 of 100

Well controlled hypertension booked for elective inguinal hernia repair, ASA class?

1
2
3
4
5

Question 19 of 100

Hyperparathyroidism type in chronic renal failure is:

Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Quartenary

Question 20 of 100

Laborer working in hot climate and fainted, what is cause?

Heat exhaustion
Dehydration
Pituitary dysfunction
Hypothalamic dysfunction

Question 21 of 100

Trichomoniasis is associated with which vaginal discharge?

Greenish-yellow
Yellow
Brown
Red

Question 22 of 100

Choledocholithiasis is when stone impacts which of the following?

Cystic duct
Common hepatic duct
Common bile duct
Pancreatic duct

Question 23 of 100

Head circumference is used to measure gestational age, however in early dating scans which of the following is used?

Femur length
Crown-rump length
Biparietal diameter
Abdominal circumference

Question 24 of 100

Leiomyomas are commonly found in which organ?

Esophagus
Stomach
Small intestine
Uterus

Question 25 of 100

If the whole of the left leg, arm and anterior torso and abdomen are burnt what is burn percentage?

36%
45%
18%
64%

Question 26 of 100

Hoffman sign is associated with?

UMN injury in upper cord
UMN in lower cord
LMN in upper cord
LMN in lower cord

Question 27 of 100

Which parasite most commonly causes appendicitis?

Round woms
Silkworms
Liver flukes
Pinworms

Question 28 of 100

Ewing sarcoma is characterized by:

Small round blue cells
Large ovoid blue cells
Small elliptical blue cells
Small eccentrically placed blue cells

Question 29 of 100

Which of the following is not a branch of right coronary artery

acute marginal
posterior interventricular
artery to SA node
circumflex artery

Question 30 of 100

Anterior intercostals artery is a branch of

Internal mammary artery
Direct branch of aorta
Posterior intercostals artery
Subclavian artery

Question 31 of 100

The cardiac vein that remains normal in diameter when there is a thrombosis in the coronary sinus is?

middle cardiac vein
small cardiac vein
oblique cardiac vein
anterior cardiac vein

Question 32 of 100

Wrong about venous drainage of the heart:

the coronary sinus is guarded by the thebesian vale
middle cardiac vein lies in the posterior AV groove
great cardiac vein accompanies the left anterior descending artery
venae cordis minimae opens into all 4 chambers

Question 33 of 100

A cardiac ganglion is situated in

below the arch of aorta
above the arch of aorta
the left side of ligamentum arteriosum
posterior to ligamentum arteriosum

Question 34 of 100

All are the accessory muscle inspiration except

serrates anterior
serrates posterior
latissimus dorsi
scalene

Question 35 of 100

Which of the following do NOT elevate the ribs?

Serratus posterior superior
Serratus posterior inferior
External intercostals
Levatores costarum

Question 36 of 100

All of the following are true regarding heart except:

Coronary sinus opens into Right atrium
Vena cordae minimi drain into the surface artery
SA mode is supplied by Right coronary artery
Left auricle projects anteriorly to overlap the infundibulum of right ventricle

Question 37 of 100

Left-sided superior vena cava drains into:

Right atrium
Left atrium
Coronary sinus
Pericardial space

Question 38 of 100

Inferior margin of the pleura in the midclavicular line is at the level

4th rib
6th rib
8th rib
10th rib

Question 39 of 100

Congenital underdevelopment of the facial nerve is known as?

Moebius syndrome
Sturge weber syndrome
Angelman syndrome
Apert syndrome

Question 40 of 100

Scabies is caused by which of the following?

Parasite
Bacteria
Fungus
Virus

Question 41 of 100

Which of the following is true in ulnar nerve palsy?

The ulna nerve can be affected by a fracture of the spiral groove of the humerus
It gives rise to a positive Phalen’s sign
It leads to loss of sensation over the medial half of the hand and medial one and a half digits on both palmar and dorsal aspects of the hand
It supplies the biceps muscles

Question 42 of 100

In the assessment of the hand function which of the following is true?

Abduction of the thumb is supplied by spinal root T2
Opposition of the thumb by opponens policis is supplied by spinal root T
Finger adduction is supplied by the median nerve
Finger abduction is mediated by the palmar interossei

Question 43 of 100

Which of the following is true about an intention tremor?

It is worse at rest
It is caused by Parkinson's Disease
It is indicative of a cerebellar lesion
Dyscalculia is a common association

Question 44 of 100

Which of the following is true about the carpal tunnel syndrome?

it can be caused by rheumatoid arthritis
It is caused by compression of the ulna nerve
It causes pain and tingling in the medial three and half digits
Paresthesia is worse during the day

Question 45 of 100

Which of the following is true about radial nerve palsy?

The radial nerve arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus
It is associated with sensory loss over the medial half of the hand
It leads to wrist drop
It can occur due to a superficial laceration over the wrist

Question 46 of 100

The most medial structure passing under the inferior extensor retinaculum of the foot is

deep peroneal nerve
tibialis anterior
extensor hallucis longus
anterior tibial artery

Question 47 of 100

Patellar plexus comprises of all EXCEPT

posterior branch of lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
infrapatellar branch of saphenous nerve
medial femoral cutaneous nerve
anterior branch of lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
intermediate femoral cutaneous nerve

Question 48 of 100

Dermatomes of lower limb:

S1 supplies the great toe
L2 supplies anterior upper thigh
S3 supplies perianal area
L4 supplies medial thigh
LS supplies medial calf

Question 49 of 100

Slipped upper femoral epiphysis:

is more common in girls than boys
usually occurs in the 5-8 year age group
may present as referred pain in the knee
the limb may be internally rotated and shortened
can be treated conservatively

Question 50 of 100

With respect to the posterior compartment of the thigh:

blood supply is mainly from the femoral artery
the sciatic nerve lies lateral to the long head of biceps
the long head of biceps is supplied by the common peroneal nerve
the hamstrings form the apex of the popliteal fossa
semimembranosus arises in common with the long head of biceps

Question 51 of 100

In the medial compartment of the thigh:

adductor magnus consists of adductor and hamstring muscle masses
the contents are separated from the posterior compartment by the posterior intermuscular septum
adductor longus is the most superficial muscle of the medial side of the thigh
the anterior division of the obturator nerve passes through obturator externus
the posterior division of the obturator nerve is the prime motor supply

Question 52 of 100

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the adductor canal?

sartorius lies on the fascia' roof
in the distal part of the canal, the femoral vein is posterolateral to the artery
at all levels, the artery lies between saphenous nerve and femoral vein
the subsartorial plexus supplies overlying fascia lata and an area of skin above medial side of the knee
the adductors in the floor of the canal are the adductor brevis above and the adductor longus below

Question 53 of 100

The adductor canal is not:

roofed by fascia containing the subsartorial plexus
occupied by the sciatic nerve
also known as Hunter's canal
occupied by the femoral artery
a gutter shaped groove between vastus medialis and the front of the adductor muscles

Question 54 of 100

Which factor is most important in preventing lateral displacement of the patella during quadriceps contraction?

the forward prominence the lateral condyle of the femur.
the action of articularis genu
the action of vastus medialis
the action of rectus femoris
the tension of the medial patellar retinaculum

Question 55 of 100

All the following are branches of the femoral nerve except:

medial femoral cutaneous nerve
saphenous nerve
nerve to vastus medialis
lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
nerve to Sartorius

Question 56 of 100

The profunda femoris artery does not:

normally supply all the thigh muscles
arise from the lateral side of the femoral artery, 3-4cm distal to the inguinal ligament
give off the deep external pudendal artery
lie behind the profunda vein
lie directly anterior to adductor brevis and magnus

Question 57 of 100

Which of the following is not found within the femoral sheath?

femoral artery
femoral canal
femoral hernia
femoral nerve
lymph node of Cloquet

Question 58 of 100

Which of the following muscles is not found in the floor of the femoral triangle?

iliacus
psoas
pectineus
adductor magnus
adductor longus

Question 59 of 100

The iliotibial tract:

lies lateral to tensor fascia latae
inserts onto the head of the fibula
is the origin of 60% of gluteus maximus
is a weak flexor of the knee via tensor fascia latae
is attached superiorly to the iliac crest

Question 60 of 100

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding lymphatic drainage of the lower limb?

the superficial inguinal node group consists of about 15 nodes
the lateral nodes of the proximal superficial group receive lymph from the buttock, flank and back below the waist
the medial nodes of proximal superficial group receive lymph from testes, glans penis, lower anal canal and perineum
the distal nodes of the superficial group receive all the superficial lymphatics of the lower limb

Question 61 of 100

Abdominal policeman is known as?

Lesser omentum
Greater omentum
Falciform ligament
Peritoneum

Question 62 of 100

Psammoma bodies due to?

Metastatic calcification
Dystrophic calcification
Caseous necrosis
Fibrinoid necrosis

Question 63 of 100

Mallory bodies due to which of the following?

cytokeratin degeneration
Ballooning of hepatocytes
Alcohol accumulation
Heat shock protein denaturing

Question 64 of 100

Status epilepticus with blood in urine and decreased urine, which of the following is possible?

traumatic hematuria
ATN
Myoglobinuria
Drug induced pseudo hematuria

Question 65 of 100

Pre-operative treatment for pheochromocytoma involves?

Alpha blockers only
B blockers only
First alpha blockade then B blockade
First B blockade then alpha blockade

Question 66 of 100

Laryngeal papilloma treatment involves?

Excision, radio of base of tongue, 2 years follow up
Excision, histopathology, follow up 2 years
Laser, histopathology, follow up 2 years
Definite radiotherapy, follow up 2 years

Question 67 of 100

Which trace element is not a co-factor?

zinc
copper
manganese
iron
Sulfur

Question 68 of 100

Which of the following is a voiding symptom?

Urgency
Hesitancy
urge incontinence
Frequency

Question 69 of 100

After retirement, man has low mood and suicidal thoughts, which is he suffering from?

Post-retirement blues
Bipolar disorder
Seasonal affective disorder
Major depressive disorder

Question 70 of 100

Secondary hyperaldosteronism due to cirrhosis causes which of the following?

arteriolar nephrosclerosis
Increased Angiotensin 2
Increased renin
Decreased angiotensinogen

Question 71 of 100

Stranger anxiety at which months?

8 months
6 months
3 months
12 months

Question 72 of 100

Myelin producing cells in the CMS are?

Schwann cells
Oligodendrocytes
Astrocytes
Microglial cells

Question 73 of 100

Pigment producing granules in which layer of skin?

Corneum
Lucidum
Basale
Stratum

Question 74 of 100

Insecticide poisoning antidote?

Atropine
Epinephrine
Pralidoxime
Naloxone

Question 75 of 100

Pain in left hand for one year followed by muscle wasting of the thenar eminence, which investigation would you advise?

Cervical spine x-ray
Aldase test
X-ray chest
serum ANA
anti-ro and anti-la

Question 76 of 100

Unilateral limb edema secondary to malignancy R1 resection; what is the cause?

Regional lymphatic obstruction
Cytokine induced inflammatory change
IL-6 induced local vasospasm
Congenital absence of lympho-venous connection

Question 77 of 100

C7 myotome innervates which of the following?

Longus colli muscle
Triceps muscle
Trapezius muscle
Brachioradialis muscle

Question 78 of 100

Golgi tendon organ senses which of the following?

Tension during contraction
Muscle stretch
Speed of stretch
Deep sensations from the body

Question 79 of 100

In skeletal muscle contraction:

A band shortens
I Band shortens
H zone increases
Z line moves apart
M line moves from the center of the sarcomere

Question 80 of 100

Which of the following is a benign pediatric tumor?

Pilocytic astrocytoma
Glioblastoma multiforme
Anaplastic Astrocytoma
Gemistocytic astrocytoma

Question 81 of 100

Which of the following is not associated with pancytopenia?

Aplastic anemia
Myelodysplastic syndrome
Iron deficiency anemia
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Vitamin B12 deficiency

Question 82 of 100

Which of the following artery pierces the clavipectoral fascia?

Axillary artery
Brachia artery
Thoracodrosal artery
Thoracoacromial artery
Internal mammary artery

Question 83 of 100

Internal acoustic meatus lies between which of the following:

Anterior wall of the posterior cranial fossa and external auditory meatus
Floor of the posterior cranial fossa and external auditory meatus
Roof of the posterior cranial fossa and and external auditory meatus
Anterior aspect of the petrous part of the temporal bone and external auditory meatus

Question 84 of 100

Which of the following morphologies of cataracts might suggest a congenital origin?

Lamellar
Posterior subcapsular
Central fetal nuclear
Diffuse

Question 85 of 100

What are the chances of pregnancy during exclusive breastfeeding, known as lactational amenorrhea method of contraception?

Less than 5%
Less than 10%
Less than 2%
Less than 1%

Question 86 of 100

Ceruloplasmin is a carrier protein which are usually a globulin type of protein: which of the following is it?

Alpha-2 globulin
Alpha-1 globulin
Beta-2 globulin
Gamma globulin

Question 87 of 100

Chorionic villi occur In primary Secondary and tertiary form during the development of the placenta during pregnancy. Which of the following is true regarding secondary villi?

Forms the core of loose connective tissue
Extraembryonic mesoblast invaginates primary villus
Forms lacunae
Forms core surrounded by cytotrophoblast and synctiotrophoblast
All the given options

Question 88 of 100

Spinal anesthesia most common complication?

Spinal headache
Hypertension
Bradycardia
Unilateral spinal anesthesia

Question 89 of 100

Local anesthesia works on which of the following receptors?

Sodium
Potassium
Calcium
Magnesium

Question 90 of 100

Chromosomal abnormalities frequently lead to?

Down's syndrome
First trimester miscarriage
Patau's syndrome
Turner's syndrome

Question 91 of 100

Intermittent claudication occurs in which of the following?

hypertensives
IHD
Diabetics
Peripheral vascular disease

Question 92 of 100

Which of the following is a grade I tear?

Skin of perineum
Muscles of perineum
Anal sphincter
Rectum

Question 93 of 100

Menopause has which of the following?

Increased FSH
Increased Estrogen
Increased Progesterone
Increased testosterone

Question 94 of 100

Paracentesis is done in which of the following?

Ascites
Pleural Effusion
Pericardial effusion
Ventricular dilation

Question 95 of 100

At what age does a child’s weight double from birth weight?

1 year
6 months
4 months
3 months

Question 96 of 100

Prednisolone is given in which of the following?

Osteoarthritis
Hypothyroidism
Nocturnal enuresis
ITP

Question 97 of 100

Appendicular abscess has been found on ultrasound along with early mass formation, what should you do?

Aspiration of abscess and interval appendectomy
Interval appendectomy
IV antibiotics alone
Aspiration of abscess, UV antibiotics and interval appendectomy

Question 98 of 100

Pulmonary embolism occurs due to which or the following?

Increased ambulation
Pelvic surgery
In underlying pulmonary disease
In patients taking aspirin daily

Question 99 of 100

Which of the following are insulin sensitive and found in muscle and adipose tissue?

GLUT 1
GLUT 2
GLUT 3
GLUT 4

Question 100 of 100

Endometriosis can cause which of the following?

PR bleed
Dyschezia
Headaches
Cyclical dyspareunia

JCAT Past Past Paper 8

Quiz Summary

Information

Results

Results

Categories

1. Question

2. Question

3. Question

4. Question

5. Question

6. Question

7. Question

8. Question

9. Question

10. Question

11. Question

12. Question

13. Question

14. Question

15. Question

16. Question

17. Question

18. Question

19. Question

20. Question

21. Question

22. Question

23. Question

24. Question

25. Question

26. Question

27. Question

28. Question

29. Question

30. Question

31. Question

32. Question

33. Question

34. Question

35. Question

36. Question

37. Question

38. Question

39. Question

40. Question

41. Question

42. Question

43. Question

44. Question

45. Question

46. Question

47. Question

48. Question

49. Question

50. Question

51. Question

52. Question

53. Question

54. Question

55. Question

56. Question

57. Question

58. Question

59. Question

60. Question

61. Question

62. Question

63. Question

64. Question

65. Question

66. Question

67. Question

68. Question

69. Question

70. Question

71. Question

72. Question

73. Question